October 2018 1 26 Report
Jika ada  \frac{a}{b} + \frac{-a}{b} = \frac{ab+(-ab)}{b^{2} } = \frac{0}{ b^{2} } = \frac{0}{1} pertanyaannya mengapa  \frac{0}{ b^{2} } ekuivalen dengan  \frac{0}{1}

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